Romans 15:7 ¶ Therefore, accept one another, just as Christ also accepted us to the glory of God. ⁸ For I say that Christ has become a servant to the circumcision on behalf of the truth of God to confirm the promises given to the fathers, ⁹ and for the Gentiles to glorify God for His mercy; as it is written, “THEREFORE I WILL GIVE PRAISE TO YOU AMONG THE GENTILES, AND I WILL SING TO YOUR NAME.” ¹⁰ Again he says, “REJOICE, O GENTILES, WITH HIS PEOPLE.” ¹¹ And again, “PRAISE THE LORD ALL YOU GENTILES, AND LET ALL THE PEOPLES PRAISE HIM.” ¹² Again Isaiah says, “THERE SHALL COME THE ROOT OF JESSE, AND HE WHO ARISES TO RULE OVER THE GENTILES, IN HIM SHALL THE GENTILES HOPE.” ¹³ ¶ Now may the God of hope fill you with all joy and peace in believing, so that you will abound in hope by the power of the Holy Spirit.

Last Sunday I preached on this passage.  The following is simply a note for further on an issue in the text I did not address in my sermon.

Does this passage teach that the church is the new Israel?  Does this passage indicate that the church fulfills prophecies made specifically to the nation of Israel?

Jason Robertson, recently wrote of this passage: “In Romans 15:8-12, Paul notes that the conversion of the Gentiles is a ‘confirming of the promises to the fathers.’ And at least one of the verses brought forth as proof speaks of Christ’s Messianic kingdom rule (Rom. 15:12).”

Contrary to my good friend, I think there are a number of reasons Romans 15:8-12 does not teach that the salvation of the Gentiles is a fulfillment of the specific promises made to the nation of Israel.

• These verses actually make a distinction between the circumcision and the Gentiles, and the specific purposes behind Christ’s saving each of them.

• The distinction is seen not in two different salvations, but in two different purpose clauses regarding the salvation of each:

• Notice the parallelism:
  • Christ became a servant
    

    of the circumcised (peritomhj)
    

    on behalf of the truth of God (upper alhqeiaj qeou)
    

    in order to confirm the promises given to the fathers (eij
    

    to bebaiwsa . .
    

    but for the Gentiles (ta de eqnh)
    

    on behalf of mercy (uper eleouj)
    

    to glorify God (doxasai ton qeon)
    

Two groups are mentioned: “to the circumcised,” and “for the Gentiles.”

Two emphases are mentioned: to the circumcision, “on behalf of the truth of God,” and for the Gentiles, “on behalf of mercy.”

Two purpose clauses: to the circumcised, “to confirm the promises given to the fathers;” and for the Gentiles, “to glorify God.”

• In Romans, Paul acknowledges that one of the unique privileges of being a Jew is their being entrusted with the oracles of God (3:1-2). They uniquely received “the covenants and the giving of the Law and the temple service and the promises” (9:4). The “fathers” is a distinct reference to the Jews as a distinct national people (Rom 9:5; 11:28). It is not a spiritual moniker for all who are in Christ. The Gentiles, as a people, never received such a body of truth. They were actually outside such covenants and promises. That’s why Christ’s being a servant to the Gentiles is described by the Apostle Paul as NOT, “on behalf of the truth of God in order to confirm the promises given to the fathers,” but rather, “on behalf of mercy.” It is nothing more than sheer mercy that the Gentiles are saved at all. They were not recipients of the specific promises the Jewish people were given, and yet they have been shown mercy.
  

• This is not to say that the Scriptures never predicted the salvation of the Gentiles. Paul does quote from the law, the writings, and the prophets in Romans 15:9-12 to give indication that their future salvation would come. None of those references indicate that the Gentiles would become “the circumcision,” or “Israel.” None of the promises indicate that the Gentiles are fulfilling the prophecies regarding Israel. They are fulfilling the prophesies made distinctively about the Gentiles.

• Romans 15:8-12 still has the eschatological trajectory in mind from the previous context of Romans 9-11. In other words, while Romans 15:8-12 does look to the present salvation of both Jew and Gentile, it also envisions the completion of their salvation. Thus Paul’s quotation of Isaiah 11:10 that indicates that under the final world-dominating rule of the root of Jesse, the Gentiles will have hope.

Does this contradict Paul in Galatians 3:28 when he indicates that “there is neither Jew nor Greek?”  I don’t think so.  Men are still male and women are still female, even though they are “one in Christ.”  In fact, both still have distinct functions within Christ even though they are one in Christ (unless you take an egalitarian position).  Paul’s point in Galatians 3:28 (and/or Colossians 3:11) is not that the Gentiles are now fulfilling Israel’s prophecies.

The importance of this note is simply to point out that one salvation exists for both Jew and Gentile.  Both are to accept one another because both are in Christ.  This oneness, however, does not mean a melding of the two into Israel.  The Scriptures made specific promises to Israel that will be fulfilled (Romans 3:1-5; 9-11).  The Scriptures also promised salvation to Gentiles.  The promises fulfilled for Israel demonstrate God’s faithfulness on behalf of His truth regarding promises made to the fathers.  Jesus serves the Jews by fulfilling these promises to them.  Salvation granted to the  Gentiles demonstrate God’s mercy for the purposes of His ultimate glory.  Jesus serves the Gentiles by extending such mercy.